top of page

Did Jesus Lie?

J

Mark 9:1. And He was saying to them, "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who shall not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power."

 

Luke 9:27. "But I say to you truthfully, there are some of those standing here who shall not taste death until they see the kingdom of God."

 

Matthew 16.28. "Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who shall not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom."

 

All three statements refer to the coming kingdom. One says the Christ is coming with his kingdom. Did the other scribes made an error or did the single scribe made the error. Should we take the recording of two witnesses rather than one. It is true, some lived to see the kingdom come on the day of Pentecost.

I believe this statement is separate from what was being said about the last days in the previous verses. This was not prophetic of the last days but Prophetic of the coming kingdom. Jesus tacked this on at the end. He added this as a second important event to come. how we know this? it is based on what we know about the kingdom. 

So, he was speaking about two things that they will see, the coming in the last days and the coming of the kingdom. Mark 9:1 the kingdom will come with Power. This is the Holy Spirit.

The kingdom of God is not coming with signs to be observed; nor will they say, 'Look, here it is!' or, 'There it is!' For behold, the kingdom of God is in your midst (Luke 17:20-21).

The previous verses about the end time and the coming of angels and Jesus in great glory is not the way the kingdom will come so he was speaking about something else before he spoke about the kingdom. let's understand that the kingdom did come in their future, over a year/s after this statement.  So some in that generation did not die but were alive as evidenced that the apostles save one lived to see the kingdom come.

So, the kingdom came at Pentecost with power. The Church is the people in the kingdom. The Church did not come it was the kingdom that came. The Church (ekklesia) is the people called out from darkness to the light. The Church is under the rule, authority and government of God. Only when we have this we have a kingdom. This is the kingdom. So, the kingdom 'MAY' not have existed until the Church was formed. A kingdom without the people is not a kingdom.

You can see the Church but you can’t see or get in the kingdom (i.e. come under the Governance of God) unless you are in the Church (body), through repentance/change and Holy Spirit seal.  John 3:3-5. (3) Jesus replied, “I tell you the solemn truth, unless a person is born from above, he cannot SEE the kingdom of God.”John 3:4 Nicodemus said to him, “How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter his mother’s womb and be born a second time, can he?” John 3:5 Jesus answered, “I tell you the solemn truth, unless a person is born of water and spirit, he cannot ENTER the kingdom of God.

Rom 14:17 For the kingdom of God does not consist of food and drink, but righteousness, peace, and joy in the Holy Spirit.

What happens in the kingdom? The kingdom a spiritual ‘place’ or for the spiritual. It is not about physical fleshly activities (cars, jewelry, looks, food, money, house, clothes) but the spiritual things of the Church, love, charity, holiness, righteousness, preaching the gospel, teaching God’s principles etc.

Were you a Spirit being before you were born.

 

When and how does person have a spirit. (Zech 12:1 [KJV]) The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him.

What happens when we die.

Ecclesiastes 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it. Both of these strongly suggests that the spirit of all men shall return to God whether good or bad. These statements do not differentiate between good and bad people. When we die our spirit goes back to the one who formed it in us. So far nothing says we existed as a spirit being.

Are we spirit bodies in heaven awaiting flesh or God knows us in our future. (Jer 1:5 [NET2]) “Before I formed you in your mother’s womb I chose you. Before you were born I set you apart. I appointed you to be a prophet to the nations.” Was I a spirit with all my thoughts and personality existing and in place before my fleshly body was formed in my mother? The statement seems to be saying that either you existed in spirit before you existed in flesh and God knew the Spirit or God’s foreknowledge knew the future in advance before it happened. No scripture tells us of pre-existing spirits other than God and the angels.

What scripture tells us in Ecclesiastes is that our spirit is formed in us the flesh which means it is not formed before us/ the flesh.

Is our spirit eternal?

God’s spirit is the only source for our spirit which he forms in us. His spirit only becomes our spirit, when it is uniquely tied with our person and being a witness of all we do in the flesh. Our Spirit bears record of our life before God for our judgement.

On return to God upon death, God decides where we shall wait until final judgement day.

Therefore, we were not spirit beings walking around with knowledge of ourselves waiting until God formed our physical bodies to inhabit them.

The Epicurean paradox? 
Epicurus said, either “God, either wishes to take away evils, and is unable; or He is able, and is unwilling; or He is neither willing nor able, or He is both willing and able”.
 

Here is my short answer. 
God is willing and able to deal with evil. There is nothing that says he has to remove/deal with evil when man says so. All in God’s time. You see the Epicureans did not have revelation from God when He promised a time will come that He will judge the world. To the Israelites and Christians this is not a paradox. 

 

 

 


CAN GOD LIFT A GOD ROCK? 
If God can make a rock so heavy He cannot lift then He is not all powerful and therefore not God.

 

God is a necessary being without his power sustaining the universe it will collapse. If God gives power to a rock that he may not be able to move it, does not mean that God is not all powerful. God shares his power with everything in the universe if God himself only contained 100% of all power then the sun will not shine and jet planes could not take off and people could not walk and breathe. God does not give his power away but shares it to sustain these universal powers. Does this mean God has lost his status as being all powerful because he shares his power with the universe. No, he still remains all powerful because he owns and provides all of the power in the universe. Therefore, if God makes a rock that is heavier than he can move then He is sharing his power with the force of the rock, so the force of the rock is exist and is sustained by God himself. Without God’s shared power the rock won’t be heavy neither will it exist. Between God and the rock all power still resides with God even though he is sharing some of it with the rock. If I beat myself who won the fight, me.  

 

 


OCCAM’S RAZOR
When you have multiple competing hypotheses you should default to the one that requires you to make the fewest assumptions, unless there is some compelling, evidence-based reason to think that one of the other solutions is correct. 
Usually people fail to mention the compelling evidence-based reasoning part of it. They say math will choose the path of least resistance. He assumes math acts like nature and choses the path of least resistance. The simplest solution is not always the best one. Intelligence sometimes chooses paths that are difficult and goes against the grain. This is why they tend to leave out intelligence because it only complicates things. He is creating a strong man argument which is a logical fallacy.

 

 

 

 


God cannot make 2+2=5.
 

A question I will ask is can 1+1 =1. This is also an impossibility right?
Sperm and an egg can produce one child. 
God has shown that the Holy Spirit, the Word and The Father = one God.
Adam and Eve when married equaled one flesh. 
Whether philosophically, logically or actually it happened.
2+2=5 with God is not if it is possible but how it can He make it possible. You can mold 2 and 2 into 1 and then divide the 1 into 5 parts. If I can conceptualize an answer how much more possible is it for God to work miracles?

Did plants die in the Garden of Eden?

 

The Hebrew word Naphesh (creature) Chayyah (living) is used in reference to living things and was applied to animals and humans. The plants were never spoken of as Naphesh. So, there is no loss of the Naphesh living when the plant decompose only when humans and animals decompose/ die. The Bible only refers to plants as withering.

Animals and humans were never to be eaten only plants. The plant food was design to be decomposed when eaten and what was produced by the tree that was not eaten, was to decompose and become food for the other plants in a cycle of life. So plants were to be producers of food while animals and humans were to consume their food and the waste from humans and animals was to fertilise the plants and help in the growth and produce of more food.

It seems that God was not going to create food every time animals and people ate therefore a marvelously created cycle ensured a continuous supply of food. His wonderful reproduction cycle works.

So, there was no plant death before the fall or after the fall because their decomposition does not result in the lost of life. 

Scientists today assume that because plants have some similar physical characteristics to animals and humans that they are living. 

the Bible is clear death only came into the world after Adam sinned not before.. 

We were spirit before birth??
Did Jesus Lie
The Epicurean paradox
Occams's Razor
Can God lift a God rock
Did plants die in the Garden
God annot make 2+2=5
bottom of page